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100% Pass Quiz 2026 Pass-Sure AANP-FNP: Exam Sample AANP Family Nurse Practitioner (AANP-FNP) Questions

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Nursing AANP Family Nurse Practitioner (AANP-FNP) Sample Questions (Q24-Q29):

NEW QUESTION # 24
A 33-year-old Caucasian woman is in the clinic inquiring about sexual activity during pregnancy. She is 7 months pregnant and concerned that it will place her pregnancy at an increased risk. The nurse practitioner has determined there have been no risk factors to date, so the NP's knowledge suggests that:

A. This may increase the risk of cardiovascular abnormalities in the fetus.
B. There is no increased risk to the pregnancy.
C. This may increase the risk of pre-term labor.
D. This may stimulate labor and, therefore, should be avoided.

Answer: B

Explanation:
When discussing sexual activity during pregnancy, many pregnant women, like the 33-year-old Caucasian patient mentioned, often express concerns regarding the safety and impact of such activities on their pregnancy. It is crucial to address these concerns with accurate information and reassurance based on current medical understanding and the specific circumstances of the pregnancy.
In general, for a pregnancy that has been progressing without complications, there is no increased risk associated with engaging in sexual activity. The human body is designed to protect the developing fetus throughout the pregnancy, and normal sexual activity does not typically interfere with this process. The amniotic fluid, strong uterine muscles, and the mucus plug at the cervix all serve to protect the fetus from infection and physical harm.
However, it is essential for pregnant women to be aware of certain signs that should prompt them to avoid sexual activity and seek medical advice. These include symptoms like vaginal discharge that is unusual in color or smell, any form of vaginal bleeding, or the rupture of the membranes (commonly known as water breaking). These symptoms could indicate potential complications, and abstaining from sexual activity while these are evaluated and managed is prudent.
In a small percentage of pregnancies where complications are present, such as placenta previa, preterm labor, or a history of miscarriages, a healthcare provider might advise against sexual intercourse. This caution is due to the potential for physical stimulation of the lower uterine segment during intercourse, which could theoretically lead to contractions or increased pressure on the cervix.
Additionally, the hormonal changes triggered by orgasm, which include the release of oxytocin, can potentially stimulate uterine contractions. While in most pregnancies this is not a concern and does not lead to pre-term labor, in specific high-risk cases, this could be a factor contributing to early labor.
In conclusion, for most pregnancies that are progressing without any complications, sexual activity is considered safe and does not increase the risk to the pregnancy. Pregnant women should maintain open communication with their healthcare providers about their specific situations. This will help ensure that any potential risks are appropriately managed and that the pregnancy can continue safely while also accommodating the natural aspects of the patient's life, including sexual activity.

NEW QUESTION # 25
Which of the following sexually transmitted male genitourinary infections is most likely to be treated with patient-applied podofilox 0.5% solution or imiquimod 5% cream?

A. balanitis
B. genital warts
C. lymphogranuloma venereum
D. gonococcal urethritis

Answer: B

Explanation:
The correct answer to which sexually transmitted male genitourinary infection is most likely to be treated with patient-applied podofilox 0.5% solution or imiquimod 5% cream is genital warts. Genital warts are a common sexually transmitted infection primarily caused by certain strains of the human papillomavirus (HPV), particularly HPV types 6 and 11. These warts are characterized by one or more small bumps or groups of bumps in the genital area. They can vary in size and appearance and may be flat or raised, single or multiple.
Treatment for genital warts focuses on removing visible warts to relieve symptoms and reduce transmission risk, although treatments do not cure HPV itself. Podofilox 0.5% solution and imiquimod 5% cream are among the several patient-applied treatments available. Podofilox works by destroying the tissue of the wart, while imiquimod boosts the immune system's response to fight off the virus at the site of the wart. Both treatments are applied directly to the warts by the patient at home, following a specific schedule recommended by a healthcare provider.
In addition to podofilox and imiquimod, other treatment options for genital warts include cryotherapy (freezing the warts with liquid nitrogen), electrocautery (burning the warts with electric current), surgical removal, and application of trichloroacetic acid or podophyllin resin by a healthcare professional. The choice of treatment depends on the number, size, and location of the warts, as well as patient preference and provider experience.
It is important for sexually active individuals to undergo regular screenings for sexually transmitted infections and discuss any suspicious symptoms with their healthcare provider to determine appropriate testing and treatment. This is crucial not only for the individual's health but also for the prevention of spreading the infection to others.

NEW QUESTION # 26
If a patient comes to the clinic complaining of an abrupt onset of unilateral facial paralysis with no other symptoms, which of the following might the nurse practitioner suspect?

A. Tic Douloureux
B. Polymyalgia rheumatica
C. Bell's palsy
D. Temporal arteritis

Answer: C

Explanation:
When a patient presents with the sudden onset of unilateral facial paralysis and no accompanying symptoms, Bell's palsy is a primary condition to consider. Bell's palsy is a neurological disorder that results in temporary weakness or paralysis of the facial muscles. This condition is thought to stem from inflammation or compression of the facial nerve, known as cranial nerve VII. The exact cause of this inflammation is not always clear, but it is often linked to viral infections that can cause swelling of the nerve.
The hallmark of Bell's palsy is the rapid onset of paralysis, typically unfolding over hours to a day, and generally affecting only one side of the face. Patients may notice that they are unable to move their facial muscles on the affected side. This can include the inability to close the eye, raise the eyebrow, smile, or frown on that side. The face might look drooped or asymmetrical. Despite the dramatic presentation, most patients with Bell's palsy experience a significant improvement in symptoms within weeks, and complete recovery is possible within several months.
While Bell's palsy is a likely diagnosis in cases of sudden unilateral facial paralysis, other conditions might also be considered. These include: - **Tic Douloureux (Trigeminal Neuralgia)**: This condition affects the trigeminal nerve, another cranial nerve, but it is characterized by severe, episodic facial pain rather than muscle paralysis. - **Temporal arteritis**: This involves inflammation of the arteries in the temple area of the head. It can cause pain and, in severe cases, vision loss, rather than facial paralysis. - **Polymyalgia rheumatica**: This is an inflammatory disorder that causes muscle pain and stiffness, especially in the shoulders and hips, rather than isolated facial paralysis.
Given these alternatives, Bell's palsy remains the most consistent with the symptoms of abrupt unilateral facial paralysis without other accompanying signs. Diagnosis is typically clinical but can be supported by ruling out other causes through patient history, physical examination, and possibly imaging or other diagnostic tests. Treatment for Bell's palsy may involve corticosteroids to reduce inflammation and swelling around the facial nerve. In some cases, antiviral medications may be used, especially if a viral infection is suspected to be the underlying cause.

NEW QUESTION # 27
All but which of the following would be considered an ACE inhibitor that is used for hypertension?

A. Enalapril
B. Lisinopril
C. Torsemide
D. Trandolapril

Answer: C

Explanation:
ACE inhibitors, or angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors, are a class of medications used primarily for managing hypertension (high blood pressure) and heart failure. These drugs function by inhibiting the enzyme that converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor. By reducing the production of angiotensin II, ACE inhibitors lead to dilation of blood vessels, which in turn lowers blood pressure and reduces the workload on the heart.
The question provided lists several medications and asks which one is not an ACE inhibitor. The medications listed include Enalapril, Torsemide, Trandolapril, Lisinopril, and again Torsemide. Among these, Enalapril, Trandolapril, and Lisinopril are well-known ACE inhibitors. They are commonly prescribed for treating hypertension and are known for their effectiveness in reducing blood pressure and managing heart-related conditions.
On the other hand, Torsemide is not an ACE inhibitor. It belongs to a different class of drugs known as loop diuretics. Torsemide (marketed under the brand name Demadex) is primarily used for the treatment of edema associated with heart failure, renal disease, or hepatic disease. It works by affecting the sodium, potassium, and chloride reabsorption in the kidneys, leading to an increase in urine production and a decrease in fluid in the body, which can help lower blood pressure but through a mechanism different from that of ACE inhibitors.
Therefore, in response to the question, Torsemide is the correct answer as it is not an ACE inhibitor. It is important to distinguish between these medications as they are used for similar conditions but operate through different mechanisms and have different implications for patient care.

NEW QUESTION # 28
Your 62-year-old female patient was diagnosed with subscapular bursitis. The most likely cause of this is that she works on an assembly line using a repeated back-and-forth motion. You are using several conservative measures to treat this but after 6 weeks, results are minimal. What is your next step for this patient?

A. massage
B. antimicrobial therapy
C. intrabursal corticosteroid injection
D. appropriate exercise

Answer: C

Explanation:
The recommended next step for a 62-year-old female patient diagnosed with subscapular bursitis, especially after conservative measures such as physiotherapy, rest, and NSAIDs have shown minimal improvement, is an intrabursal corticosteroid injection. Subscapular bursitis involves inflammation of the bursa located beneath the scapula. This condition is commonly seen in individuals who perform repetitive activities, such as working on an assembly line with repeated back-and-forth motions.
Intrabursal corticosteroid injections are commonly used when conservative treatments fail to provide relief. Corticosteroids are potent anti-inflammatory agents that can effectively reduce inflammation and pain within the bursa. The injection is administered directly into the bursa to maximize its effectiveness while minimizing systemic side effects.
It is essential to inform the patient about the potential side effects and complications associated with corticosteroid injections. Commonly, patients may experience soreness and discomfort at the injection site for a few days. Although less common, there are risks of tissue atrophy and severe inflammatory reactions at the injection site. These side effects are rare but should be discussed so that the patient can make an informed decision.
Following the injection, the patient should be monitored for improvement and any adverse reactions. If symptoms persist or worsen, further diagnostic evaluation may be necessary to reassess the condition and consider alternative treatments or interventions. Additionally, modifying the patient's work environment and activities to reduce repetitive strain on the affected area can help prevent recurrence of the condition.

NEW QUESTION # 29
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